you can't derive an ought from an is meaning

Just for clarity's sake, it should be noted that Hume doesn't actually say that you can't derive an ought from an is. Obviously if the premises of your argument contain no 'ought' statements then you can't logically derive an 'ought' from them. Hume’s argument is gigantic. We think that our account provides a simpler analysis of the puzzle. However, I think most people who want to say we can derive an ought from an is would all agree with this rather trivial observation. But actually it is easy to derive “ought” from “is”. This is Hume’s famous is/ought gap: you can’t derive an ought from an is. Doughty definition, steadfastly courageous and resolute; valiant. It is obvious that by “get there” you meant “infer.” if you did not mean this, then you only mean that we can state two “is’s” and then state an ought. That you can't derive an ought from an is has always been my standard answer to atheists who try to impose a genetically based ethics by equating genetically based behavior with moral choices. But uttering sentences one after the other doesn’t “get” anywhere. It seems to me that this theory does derive an “ought” from an “is,” and justifiably so—though not in the way you imagine. Here is an example: If you want to get along with people, then you ought to be honest and friendly. Now it seems the atheists have heard that one so much they decided to do something about it. He merely says that he knows of no way to do so, and that it's common to transition from talking about is to ought without explaining how that transition was made. One of the most punchy criticisms of Sam Harris says that deriving an ‘ought’ from an ‘is’ is like adding two even numbers and obtaining an odd one – you don’t have to check the working to know you’ve made a mistake somewhere. reveal a genuine counterexample to the Humean dictum that you can’t derive an ought from an is. The “is-ought fallacy” is another recurring ‘folk philosophy’ phrase – meaning “you can’t derive an ‘ought’ from an ‘is’”, after Hume. Basically the problem is that you cannot deduce from a set of facts what ought to be. But that is not to say that “because God is a certain way we ought to behave in certain ways.” We can spell this out logically as follows: What makes it seem as though there is an analytic entailment from pto [Sought to believe that p\ is, first, that the conditional, [If Allow me to point you to the newest attempt by Sam Harris to derive "ought" from "is". See more. At best you can conclude from the premises that some ought statement is plausible. The general form is what Kant calls a hypothetical imperative. I don't want to spend another week bogged down with this issue, so I'm not going to say much, especially since my original criticism was not so much that he purports to derive "ought" from "is" as that he fails to show that morality is objective in the sense discussed in contemporary metaethics. Back when I was in college and taking up philosophy, the received opinion concerning ethics claims, the standard doctrine espoused by all my teachers, was that, since Hume at least, we can all agree that one can't derive "ought" statements from "is" statements, that is claims about what we ought to do in any given case do not follow based on the descriptions of the facts of the case alone. This has been known ever since as the “is-ought” problem. The theory does, as you say, ground moral values in God's unchanging nature. So you did offer an argument, and the “ought” does not follow, for exactly the reasons I have explained. 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